Exegetical and Hermeneutical Commentary of Romans 11:35
Or who hath first given to him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again?
35. hath first given to him, &c.] “Who hath laid Him under obligation? ” (Cp. Job 35:7.) Such is no doubt the special reference here. It affects not only the discussions of cch. 9 11, but also (as does indeed the whole of this doxology) the whole great doctrinal Argument of the Epistle. No merit in man, in the matter of acceptance with God, is one of its deep foundation-truths.
Fuente: The Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges
Or who hath … – The sentiment in this verse is found substantially in Job 41:11. Who hath prevented me, that I should repay him. The Hebrew word prevented means to anticipate, to go before; and God asks who has anticipated me; who has conferred favors on me before I have on him; who has thus laid me under obligation to him. This is the sense in which the apostle uses the word here. Who has, by his services, laid God under obligation to recompense or pay him again? It is added in Job, Whatsoever is under the whole heaven is mine. Thus Paul, contrary to the prevailing doctrine of the Jews, shows that no one could plead his own merits, or advance with a claim on God. All the favors of salvation must be bestowed by mercy or grace. God owned them all; and he had a right to bestow them when and where he pleased. The same claim to all things is repeatedly made by God; Exo 19:5; Deu 10:14; Psa 24:1; Psa 50:12.
Shall be recompensed – Repaid as a matter of debt. None of Gods mercies can be conferred in that way; if they could, man could bring God under obligation, and destroy the freeness and benevolence of his favors.
Fuente: Albert Barnes’ Notes on the Bible
Verse 35. Or, who hath first given to him] Who can pretend to have any demands upon God? To whom is he indebted? Have either Jews or Gentiles any right to his blessings? May not he bestow his favours as he pleases, and to whom he pleases? Does he do any injustice to the Jews in choosing the Gentiles! And was it because he was under obligation to the Gentiles that he has chosen them in the place of the Jews? Let him who has any claim on God prefer it; and he shall be compensated.
But how can the CREATOR be indebted to the creature? How can the CAUSE be dependent on the effect? How can the AUTHOR of providence, and the FATHER of every good and perfect gift, be under obligation to them for whom he provides, and who are wholly dependent on his bounty?
Fuente: Adam Clarke’s Commentary and Critical Notes on the Bible
q.d. If any man hath obliged God, by any thing he hath done for him, he shall have an ample reward: alluding (as some think) to Job 41:11. But seeing this cannot be, and that God is indebted unto none, therefore the salvation of all is of mere grace and mercy; and there is no cause of complaining, if he deal more bountifully with some than with others.
Fuente: English Annotations on the Holy Bible by Matthew Poole
35. Or who hath first given to him,and it shall be recompensed to him“and shall haverecompense made to him”
againsee Job 35:7;Job 41:11. These questions, itwill thus be seen, are just quotations from the Old Testament, as ifto show how familiar to God’s ancient people was the great truthwhich the apostle himself had just uttered, that God’s plans andmethods in the dispensation of His Grace have a reach ofcomprehension and wisdom stamped upon them which finite mortalscannot fathom, much less could ever have imagined, before they weredisclosed.
Fuente: Jamieson, Fausset and Brown’s Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible
Or who hath first given to him,…. See Job 41:11; no man can give God anything, which he has not first given him, or which he has not a prior right to, or a claim upon him for; Adam, in innocence, was not able to give God anything, nor are the angels in heaven, much less sinful men on earth; their bodies and souls, and all their enjoyments, all that is good in them, or done by them, are from the Lord; men by all their good works, best duties and services, give nothing to God, nor lay him under any manner of obligation to them: hence no man can merit anything at the hands of God, if he could,
it shall be recompensed to him again; but it is impossible there should be merit in a creature, who has nothing but what he has from God, and does nothing but what he is obliged to do; and that not by his own strength, but by the grace and strength of God; and therefore there is no retribution made by God as of debt, but of grace: hence it follows, that God is indebted to, and obliged by none, and may do what he will with his own; love Jacob and hate Esau; choose one and not another; reject the Jews, and call the Gentiles; save and justify some, and not others; none can call him to account, or say unto him, what dost thou?
Fuente: John Gill’s Exposition of the Entire Bible
First driven to him ( ). First aorist active indicative of , to give beforehand or first. Old verb, here alone in N.T. From Job 41:11, but not like the LXX, Paul’s own translation.
Shall be recompensed (). First future passive of double compound , to pay back (both and ), old word in good sense, as here and Luke 14:14; 1Thess 3:9 and in bad sense as 2Thess 1:6; Rom 12:19.
Fuente: Robertson’s Word Pictures in the New Testament
Who hath first given, etc. From Job 41:3. Heb., Who has been beforehand with me that I should repay him? Paul here follows the Aramaic translation. The Septuagint is : Who shall resist me and abide ?
Fuente: Vincent’s Word Studies in the New Testament
1) “Or who hath first given to him,” (e tis proedoken auto) “Or who previously gave to him?” Who initiated giving, God or man? Did Man ever give anything to God before God first (in priority, initiatively) gave or doled out to man? All things belong to God and none in the universe can give to God, except it be by God’s grace and mercy that he returns of that God has first delivered to his stewardship, 1Ch 29:11-14. It is here asserted that “of thine own have we given to thee”; Luk 6:38.
2) “And it shall be recompensed unto him again,” (kai antapodothesetai auto) “And it will be repaid to him?” This would be the reverse manner of Giving and man would require worship as the Creator and originator, instead of God, you see? That is if man gave to God before God first gave to man life, breath and all things, Act 17:24-28; Psa 24:1; Psa 50:10-12; 1Co 10:26.
Fuente: Garner-Howes Baptist Commentary
35. Who has first given to him, etc. Another reason, by which God’s righteousness is most effectually defended against all the accusations of the ungodly: for if no one retains him bound to himself by his own merits, no one can justly expostulate with him for not having received his reward; as he, who would constrain another to do him good, must necessarily adduce those deeds by which he has deserved a reward. The import then of Paul’s words is this — “God cannot be charged with unrighteousness, except it can be proved, that he renders not to every one his due: but it is evident, that no one is deprived by him of his right, since he is under obligation to none; for who can boast of any thing of his own, by which he has deserved his favor?” (376)
Now this is a remarkable passage; for we are here taught, that it is not in our power to constrain God by our good works to bestow salvation on us, but that he anticipates the undeserving by his gratuitous goodness. But if we desire to make an honest examination, we shall not only find, that God is in no way a debtor to us, but that we are all subject to his judgment, — that we not only deserve no layout, but that we are worthy of eternal death. And Paul not only concludes, that God owes us nothing, on account of our corrupt and sinful nature; but he denies, that if man were perfect, he could bring anything before God, by which he could gain his favor; for as soon as he begins to exist, he is already by the right of creation so much indebted to his Maker, that he has nothing of his own. In vain then shall we try to take from him his own right, that he should not, as he pleases, freely determine respecting his own creatures, as though there was mutual debt and credit.
(376) There is a passage in Job 41:11, (in the Hebrew Bible,) of which this verse seems to be a translation, made by the Apostle himself, as totally another meaning is given in the Septuagint. The person is alone changed. The Hebrew is literally this,
Who has anticipated me, And I will repay?
To “anticipate” means here with favor or gift; for the remainder of the verse is the following, —
Everything under the whole heaven, mine it is. — Ed.
Fuente: Calvin’s Complete Commentary
(35) The depth of Gods knowledge none can penetrate, and the counsels of His wisdom admit of no assessor. The means by which God works are not supplied to Him from without, but proceed from the boundless stores of His omnipotence.
Fuente: Ellicott’s Commentary for English Readers (Old and New Testaments)
35. Given recompensed. This verse, in fact, forms the key-note to the apostle’s whole doctrine of the irreconcilability of grace and works. Our works cannot recompense God; hence they cannot purchase salvation; hence salvation must be by grace, that is, gratuity. Yet when it is said “we cannot deserve anything from God,” we must be careful not to deny that finite created beings are entitled to just dealing from their Creator. (See note on Rom 11:32.)
Fuente: Whedon’s Commentary on the Old and New Testaments
Rom 11:35. Or who hath first given to him, &c. This has a manifest respect to the Jews, who claimed a right to be the people of God so far, that St. Paul (chap. Rom 9:14.) finds it necessary to vindicate the justice of God in the case; and here also, in this question, he exposes and silences the folly of any such pretence. See Locke.
Fuente: Commentary on the Holy Bible by Thomas Coke
Rom 11:35 . Description of the by words which are moulded after Job 41:3 , according to the Hebrew, not according to the LXX. (Job 41:11 ), whose translation is quite erroneous.
. ] and will it be recompensed again to Him? With whom does the case occur, that he has previously made a gift to God, and that a recompense will be made to him in return for it? Change of construction by , here occasioned by the Heb. . But for the Greek usage, comp. Bernhardy, p. 304; Khner, II. 2, p. 936.
Fuente: Heinrich August Wilhelm Meyer’s New Testament Commentary
35 Or who hath first given to him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again?
Ver. 35. Who hath first given to himJ Do we not owe him all that we have and are? And can a man merit by paying his debts?
Fuente: John Trapp’s Complete Commentary (Old and New Testaments)
35. ] or who hath previously given to Him, and it shall be repaid to him ? from Job 41:3 (11 E. V.), where the LXX ( Job 41:2 ) have (add ) , . ; But the Heb. is , ‘ who hath anticipated (i.e. by the context, conferred a benefit on) me, that I may repay him ?’ And to this the Apostle alludes, using the third person.
We can hardly doubt that this question refers to the freeness and richness of God’s mercy and love.
Fuente: Henry Alford’s Greek Testament
Rom 11:35 . , ; see Job 41:11 (A.V.). The translation of Job 41:3 , Hebrew, is perhaps Paul’s own, as the LXX is entirely different and wrong. The point of the quotation has been variously explained. If it continues the proof of Rom 11:33 , the underlying assumption is that God’s ways would be finite and comprehensible if they were determined by what men had done, so as merely to requite that. It seems better, however, to read the words in the largest sense, and then they express the fundamental truth of religion as Paul understood it viz. , that the initiative in religion belongs to God; or as he puts it elsewhere, that we have nothing we did not receive, and that boasting is excluded. The relation of man to God in these conditions is one which naturally expresses itself in doxology.
Fuente: The Expositors Greek Testament by Robertson
hath first given = gave first. Greek. prodidomi. Only here.
recompensed . . . again = repaid. Greek. antapodidomi. Here, Rom 12:19. Luk 14:14. 1Th 3:9. 2Th 1:6. Heb 10:30. Compare Rom 11:9.
Fuente: Companion Bible Notes, Appendices and Graphics
35.] or who hath previously given to Him, and it shall be repaid to him?-from Job 41:3 (11 E. V.), where the LXX (Job 41:2) have (add ) , . ; But the Heb. is , who hath anticipated (i.e. by the context, conferred a benefit on) me, that I may repay him? And to this the Apostle alludes, using the third person.
We can hardly doubt that this question refers to the freeness and richness of Gods mercy and love.
Fuente: The Greek Testament
Rom 11:35. , ..) Some adopt these words in the LXX., Isa 40:14 : others do not; but Job 41:2, Hebr. and Vulg. have it thus: Who hath previously given to Me, that I may render to Him again? All things which are under heaven are Mine.
Fuente: Gnomon of the New Testament
Rom 11:35
Rom 11:35
or who hath first given to him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again?-All that Jew or Gentile receives from God is of Gods grace, not, to repay the deserts or favors of man.
Fuente: Old and New Testaments Restoration Commentary
Job 35:7, Job 41:11, Mat 20:15, 1Co 4:7
Reciprocal: 1Ch 29:12 – riches Job 34:33 – Should Psa 16:2 – my goodness Psa 21:3 – preventest Isa 8:14 – a stone Isa 43:26 – Put Eze 45:17 – the prince’s Luk 4:23 – do Luk 15:31 – General Luk 17:10 – General Act 17:25 – seeing Rom 4:4 – General
Fuente: The Treasury of Scripture Knowledge
Rom 11:35. Or who hath first given, etc. This is from Job 41:11, but follows the Hebrew, not the mistranslation of the LXX. This question refers to the depth of Gods riches. No gift can recompense God; nothing can be purchased of Him. How appropriate to the entire discussion. The gospel is all of grace; the plan respecting Jews and Gentiles is all of grace. Nothing of merit or recompense; all freely bestowed out of the ocean depths of riches in God Himself.
Fuente: A Popular Commentary on the New Testament
or who hath first given to him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again? [Job 41:11 . This question emphasizes the riches of God, introduced at verse 33. The riches mentioned are those of mercy and grace. If we can not exchange gifts with God along the most material lines, as here indicated, how shall we purchase his mercy, buy up his love, or merit his salvation? The moralist, whether Jew or Gentile, can place God under no obligation whatever, for naught can be given to him who justly claims all things (Exo 19:5; Deu 10:14; Psa 24:1; Psa 50:12). “Do we not,” says Trapp, “owe him all that we have and are, and can a man merit by paying his debts?” (Luk 17:10). God gives all and to all, and he receives from none. Behold his grace! He freely publishes his unknowable knowledge, that the simplest may profit by his omniscience; he fully reveals his unsearchable wisdom, that the feeblest may co-operate with his omnipotence; and he lovingly gives his unmeritable gifts, that the poorest may enjoy his riches forever! Oh that men might know their riches in him, their folly, their weakness, their poverty without him!– Rev 3:17-18]
Fuente: McGarvey and Pendleton Commentaries (New Testament)
11:35 Or who hath {i} first given to him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again?
(i) This saying overthrows the doctrine of foreseen works and merits.
Fuente: Geneva Bible Notes
Job’s observation that God has never needed to depend on human assistance that puts Him in man’s debt (Job 35:7; Job 41:11) is also true. The fact that God makes people His partners in executing His will in the world does not mean that He cannot get along without us. He can.